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INSURANCE LAW

Syllabus (2005)

*2006 Syl. (Spring)

*2006 Syl. (Fall)

Introduction

Warranty I

Warranty II

Warranty III

*Misrepresentation

*Misrep. II

AIDS (Waxse)

Contra Proferentem

*9/11 and Insurance

*9/11 and Ins. II

*9/11 and Ins. III

*9/11 and Ins. IV

*9/5/06 and Paper

Reasonable Exp.

Oregon Ins. Div.

*Ment. Parity

*Parity II

*Discrimination

Estoppel

Agency Theory

Armenian Genocide

Genocide II

Prop 103 (CA)

McCarran I

McCarran II

Hartford Fire

*Cont. Comm. Suit

*Contingent Comm.

*Katrina Lawsuit

Insurable Interest

Gossett

*Loss of Market

Homeowners Pol.

Paramount

Effic. Prox. Cause I

Effic. Prox Cause II

Recovery

Murder!

Imaginary Talk

Viatical Settlement

*ERISA preemption

*ERISA II

Incontestability

Goddard I

Goddard II

Goddard III

Goddard IV

Bad Faith

Bad Faith II

CGL I

CGL II

*Met Life (asbestos)

Expected Harm I

Expected Harm II

Owned Property Excl

Groundwater

Abs. Poll. Excl. I

Abs. Poll. Excl. II

History/Autos I

History/Autos II

*"Use" of a Vehicle

*"Use" of a Veh. II

*"Use" of Veh. III

 

Vendor-Purchaser Transactions

Prof. Bill Long 2/9/05

As I was preparing some notes on the Paramount case (p.209), I thought that the subject had some difficulties to it and decided to see if I could clarify them a bit. I am dependent here on Robert Jerry's helpful discussion in Understanding Insurance Law (3d ed., pp. 391 et seq.).

Statement of the Problem

The Paramount case presents us with the problem of who is liable once a vendor and purchaser enter into a contract of sale that provides that title is transferred at a later date and the property is destroyed before the title is transferred. Who should "bear the loss" of the destruction? And, how does the presence of insurance by one or both parties affect the calculus?

In many, probably most, real estate transactions, the contract will specify who bears the risk of loss at various times of the transaction. But when this is not specified, who bears it? It might be helpful to lay out a sort of chart in which we can imagine three possible times at which risk of loss transfers from seller to buyer: (1) At the time of contracting; (2) At the time of transfer of title; (3) At the time when buyer takes possession. Under the common law, risk shifted to the buyer at the earliest of these three--when they parties entered into the contract for sale. Most states still follow this rule. However, there is a recently developed uniform law (Uniform Vendor and Purchaser Risk Act) which would transfer risk either at transfer of title or assumption of possession, whichever is first. A few big states (CA, NY, TX) and about a dozen smaller states have adopted this rule. However, the TX case before us, from 1962, presented the issue before the uniform statute was drafted. Thus we can assume that the court was operating in the "common law context" in considering the facts of the case.

Various Options

A few ways of stating the problem are easy to dispose of. Case 1: where the vendor contracts to sell to the purchaser, with closing in the future; where the vendor bears the risk; where the house is destroyed before closing; and where vendor purchased an insurance policy covering the home, the result is easy: INSURER PAYS VENDOR.

Case 2: where the vendor contracts to sell home to the purchaser, with closing in the future; where purchaser bears the risk; where the house is destroyed before closing; and where purchaser bought an insurance policy covering the home, the result is likewise easy: INSURER PAYS PURCHASER.

Case 3 is tougher: where vendor contracts to sell home, etc; where purchaser bears the risk of loss; where house is destroyed prior to closing; where ONLY vendor has insurance covering the home; where home is destroyed, what is the result?

We can imagine several kinds of results. On the one hand, the way things are supposed to work is that the vendor should get the insurance proceeds, shouldn't s/he? As long as the vendor continues with an insurable interest in the property, which s/he certainly has, the insurer should fork over the money. To what extent is another question. But, here is the problem. If the purchaser has a contract to buy the home, s/he is obliged to go through with it. Thus, under the expected application of legal rules, the vendor should be paid by the purchaser. Since the purchaser has no insurance, s/he gets nothing. Too bad for purchaser.

However, this result not only seemed inequitable but flew in the face of the basic principle of insurance law: that insurance is meant to indemnify, to compensate, for loss to the extent, and no more, than the loss suffered. Double recovery is inimical to the basic principles of insurance law. This led to the common law rule, on the other hand, that under the facts of Case 3, the insured indeed would receive money from the insurer but would hold the funds in a "constructive trust" (a legal fiction) for the benefit of the purchaser. This notion runs through the Paramount case.

One More Problem

Let's look at Case 4, tougher still, which actually is the Paramount case. Vendor contracts to sell house, etc; purchaser bears risk of loss; before closing, house is destroyed; BOTH vendor and purchaser have insurance on the house, from different companies. HOW TO SOLVE THIS ONE?

In Paramount the parties, despite the destruction of the house, decided to close the transaction. At closing, when purchaser paid off its contract to seller, the sellers assigned their rights against their insurer to the buyers. Suit was joined between the insurers to determine who would contribute which amount to compensate the purchaser. The seller, having been compensated fully by the buyer, now was out of the transaction.

At trial the court held that Aetna, the purchaser's insurer, should bear the full burden of compensating its insured, the buyer. The Court of Appeals reversed, prorating the loss between the insurers based on the face amounts of the policy. The TX Sup Ct reversed the Ct of App. and held that since the seller suffered "no legal loss" (because risk of loss had transferred to buyer and vendor was fully compensated) that its insurer should not be implicated in the case. Thus the court opined that the traditional rule (which we saw above in Case 3) would not be applicable in a case where both parties had insurance coverage. Thus, the court held that purchaser's insurer was on the hook for the full loss.

The dissent saw things differently (three dissenters). They argued that the easiest way to "divide the baby" would be to "freeze the action" at the point of the fire and ask who precisely had what kind of financial interest in the house at that moment. Then, one should prorate the insurers' liability based on this calculus. Jerry comments that this approach wouldn't be workable because it avoids a "bright line" rule, but I think it is probably eminently workable. In any case, the court decided to cast the total burden on the buyer's insurer because it bought Paramount's argument that "its insured ultimately suffered no pecuniary loss from the fire and are therefore not entitled to recover on their insurance contract (p.211)."

Conclusion

This type of fact pattern (Case 4) tends to divide courts right down the middle. But is this a problem that can be solved by statute or contract? Certainly no contract between two parties can bind the insurers regarding their payment responsibilities in the case of destruction of the property. And, a statute is probably only able to say when risk of loss transfers to the buyer and not how the parties should divide the insurance burden when both have coverage. So we are left with the two options considered by the TX Sup Ct, with Jerry and others siding with the court on this one.

 

 



Copyright © 2004-2007 William R. Long